Does standardization result in normal distribution?

I have a question about standardization (subtract mean, divide by standard deviation) of data consisting of different features with different ranges.

I read some information that seemed to be contradictory.

Standardization

• does not alter the fundamental shape of the data
• but it gives the data the properties of a normal distribution: mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1

So, does it change the normal distribution or not?