Is it correct to say "he has got hurt for 5 minutes" and "it has got tangled for 5 minutes"?

To describe events which began in the past which continue to the present.

I know that

"he has been hurt for 5 minutes" and "it has been tangled for 5 minutes" are correct

but what if we use the verb "get" which means "to become", then can we say

"he has been getting hurt for 5 minutes" and "it has been getting tangled for 5 minutes", RIGHT?

but sometimes people use the present perfect instead of the present perfect continuous to express the duration.

For example, instead of saying "I have been working here for 5 years", they will say "I have worked here for 5 years".

If that is the case, then can we say

"he has got hurt for 5 minutes" and "it has got tangled for 5 minutes"?

But if we say like that then people may think "has got" means "has" and they think the above 2 sentences are not correct.

For example, "I have got a car" means "I have a car"

But again, American says "he has gotten" not "he has got", so they may say the spelling is not correct. It should be

"he has gotten hurt for 5 minutes" and "it has gotten tangled for 5 minutes"?

This is VERY CONFUSING.