Mathematics Asked by Daniel Huff on January 1, 2022
Consider a map
begin{align}
F:&[0~1]^mathbb{N}rightarrow mathbb{R}^mathbb{N}\
&{x_k}rightarrow {y_k}=F{x_k}
end{align}
with the following properties:
${y_k} rightarrow 0$ for all ${x_k}in[0~1]^mathbb{N}$
$y_k=f(y_{k-1},x_k)$ for all $kinmathbb{N}$, where $f(cdot,cdot)$ is a continuous function and $y_0$ is a given constant.
Can we guarantee all the possible sequences ${y_k}$ converge uniformly to zero?
1 Asked on January 22, 2021 by lawrence-mano
1 Asked on January 22, 2021 by testcase12
1 Asked on January 22, 2021 by gabriele-privitera
1 Asked on January 22, 2021
connections differential geometry linear algebra manifolds vector bundles
3 Asked on January 22, 2021 by reece-mcmillin
2 Asked on January 22, 2021
1 Asked on January 22, 2021 by random487510
1 Asked on January 22, 2021 by an-isomorphic-teen
3 Asked on January 21, 2021 by eduardo-magalhes
0 Asked on January 21, 2021 by zoom-bee
0 Asked on January 21, 2021 by parcly-taxel
closed form differential geometry minimal surfaces parametrization
1 Asked on January 21, 2021 by soid
2 Asked on January 21, 2021
1 Asked on January 21, 2021 by hanwoong-cho
3 Asked on January 21, 2021 by shiloh-otis
2 Asked on January 21, 2021 by zachary-hunter
1 Asked on January 21, 2021 by user812072
1 Asked on January 21, 2021 by larry-g
Get help from others!
Recent Questions
Recent Answers
© 2023 AnswerBun.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP