Mathematics Asked by Oddly asymmetric on October 14, 2020

Let $alpha=(alpha_n)_{nge0}$ be a sequence of real numbers. Let $C(alpha)=(beta_n)_{nge0}$ where

$$beta_n=frac{1}{n+1}sum_{k=0}^{n}alpha_k$$

Finally let $C^n=Ccirc C^{n-1}$ with $C^0=text{Id}$ be functions from the set of real sequences to itself.

Will the pointwise limit $C^{infty}(alpha)=gamma$ always exist? Will it always be convergent (i.e. will $lim_{ntoinfty}gamma_n$ exist)?

I also want to know, if the pointwise limit sequence $C^{infty}(alpha)$ **does exist and is convergent**, must there be a finite *n* such that the sequence $C^n(alpha)$ is convergent? Certainly conversely if this sequence is convergent at a finite *n* then it is convergent for all greater values of *n* and so if the pointwise limit exists its limit will be the same value.

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