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Possible mistake in the solution of Baby Rudin Ch. 6 Ex. 11

Mathematics Asked on February 13, 2021

This is exercise 11, Chapter 6 in Baby Rudin:

Let $alpha$ be a fixed increasing function on $[a, b]$. For $u in mathscr{R}(alpha)$, define
$$ lVert u rVert_2 = left{ int_a^b lvert u rvert^2 mathrm{d} alpha right}^{1/2}. $$
Suppose $f, g, h in mathscr{R}(alpha)$, and prove the triangle inequality
$$ lVert f-h rVert_2 leq lVert f-g rVert_2 + lVert g-h rVert_2 $$
as a consequence of the Schwarz inequality

where by "Schwarz inequality," Rudin means the following version of Holder’s inequality:

$$leftlvert int_a^b f g mathrm{d} alpha rightrvert leq left{ int_a^b lvert f rvert^2 mathrm{d} alpha right}^{1/2} left{ int_a^b lvert g rvert^2 mathrm{d} alpha right}^{1/2}. $$

The solution to this question in the solutions manual is:

enter image description here

In the first display on the left-hand side, it should read $||f-h||_2^2$ instead of $||f-h||_2^1$. My question is about the only inequality in the proof. In particular, how is it true that $$int_a^b |f-g||g-h| dalpha le left{ int_a^b lvert f-g rvert^2 mathrm{d} alpha right}^{1/2} left{ int_a^b lvert g-h rvert^2 mathrm{d} alpha right}^{1/2}?$$ This does not looks like the proper usage of the "Schwarz inequality" or am I missing something? Can someone please propose a correct version of the solution?

The solution to the same question here seems to suffer from the same issue, if this is an issue at all, that is.

One Answer

Regarding your first question I agree, it seems it should be $|g-h|_{2}^{2}$ on the LHS.

For your second question, the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality is a special case of H$ddot{text{o}}$lder's inequality in the sense that it is the case that is applicable to inner products. So in the second display you have which explains this the intermediate steps are, begin{align} bigg|int_{a}^{b}fgdalphabigg|leqint_{a}^{b}|f||g|dalpha=|fg|_{1}leq|f|_{2}|g|_{2}=bigg(int_{a}^{b}|f|^{2}dalphabigg)^{1/2}bigg(int_{a}^{b}|g|^{2}dalphabigg)^{1/2} end{align}

The other thing to note here is it seems you are misreading the solution. You are asking how, begin{align} int_{a}^{b}|f-g||g-h|dalphaleq|f|_{2}|g|_{2}, end{align} which is not what is being presented in the proof. In Rudin's proof he is using, begin{align} int_{a}^{b}|f-g||g-h|dalphaleq|f-g|_{2}|g-h|_{2}. end{align}

EDIT: To clarify the last inequality, since $f,g,h$ are all Riemann integrable with respect to $dalpha$ then $f-g$ and $g-h$ are also Riemann integrable. So consider, begin{align} int_{a}^{b}|f-g||g-h|dalpha=|(f-g)(g-h)|_{1}leq|f-g|_{2}|g-h|_{2}=bigg(int_{a}^{b}|f-g|^{2}dalphabigg)^{1/2}bigg(int_{a}^{b}|g-h|^{2}dalphabigg)^{1/2} end{align}

EDIT2: As Paramanand pointed out, since $f-g$ and $g-h$ are Riemann integrable replace $f$ by $|f-g|$ and $g$ by $|g-h|$ in the given Cauchy-Schwarz inequality to get, begin{align} int_{a}^{b}|f-g||g-h|dalpha=bigg|int_{a}^{b}|f-g||g-h|dalphabigg|leqbigg(int_{a}^{b}|f-g|^{2}dalphabigg)^{1/2}bigg(int_{a}^{b}|g-h|^{2}dalphabigg)^{1/2} end{align}

Correct answer by Zeta-Squared on February 13, 2021

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