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Magnet: 1m iron ring with 1cm gap

Physics Asked by Barry on April 15, 2021

As the title sais,
I got a 1meter iron ring with a 1cm gap and 10000 wire twists, it is said that following equation can be used for it:

$$B = frac{µ_0 n I}{d+ frac{l}{µ}}$$

My Question is, where does "+(l/µ)" come from. I understand that in this case it is significantly smaller than "d", hence it can be ignored. But I just cannot find any Information on why it is in the equation in the first place.

My understanding of the equation so far:
d is the distance of the gap filled with air, n is the number of twists and I=current inside the wire. It is basicly the formula we were shown (minus "+(l/µ)").

One Answer

assume that the fringing fields around the gap can be neglected then from the continuity of the flux you have $Phi=BA$ through every cross-section $A$, be it in the gap or in the core.

Since $B = mu_gmu_0 H_g = mu_cmu_0 H_c$ where $mu_c$ is the core's permeability and for air gap $mu_g=1$; also from Ampere's law we get $NI=H_cell_c + H_g ell_g$. Now let $mu^*$ be an equivalent or average permeability that characterizes the core+gap so that $NI = frac{B}{mu^*mu_0 }(ell_c+ell_g)$. Then $$frac{B}{mu_c mu_0}ell_c + frac{B}{mu_g mu_0}ell_g = frac{B}{mu^*mu_0 }(ell_c+ell_g) frac{1}{mu_c }ell_c + frac{1}{mu_g }ell_g = frac{1}{mu^*}(ell_c+ell_g) mu^* = frac{ell_c+ell_g}{frac{ell_c}{mu_c } + frac{ell_g}{mu_g }}$$ Also $$ B=frac{mu^*mu_0 NI}{ell_c+ell_g} = frac{mu_0 NI}{frac{ell_c}{mu_c } + frac{ell_g}{mu_g }}$$

This is your formula for an air gap, $mu_g=1$

Correct answer by hyportnex on April 15, 2021

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